Index
Module 10 • Neurology
Neurocritical Care
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Answers & Explanations
Neurocritical Care
Keaton S. Smetana ~4 min read Module 10 of 20
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Neurocritical Care

ANSWERS AND EXPLANATIONS TO PATIENT CASES
1

Answer: C

Answer C is correct because midazolam (together with

lorazepam) is recommended by the status epilepticus

guidelines. Answers A, B, and D are incorrect because

phenytoin is less effective than lorazepam as the initial

agent. Although valproic acid and levetiracetam have

not been formally compared with lorazepam as the ini-

tial agent for status epilepticus, their use is supported by

less clinically rigorous evidence.

2Answer: B

Answer B is correct because clinical evidence supports

the safety and efficacy of osmotherapy as a first-line

therapy in this situation. Hypertonic saline would be

more appropriate than mannitol because of the patient’s

relatively low serum sodium concentration and elevated

SCr (mannitol is cleared renally and is thus not optimal

for patients with renal dysfunction, making Answer A

incorrect). Answers C and D (pentobarbital and mid-

azolam) are not ideal for this patient because of the

likelihood of hypotension.

3

Answer: B

Answer B is correct because warfarin is well reversed by

4F-PCC products in a much more timely and complete

manner than vitamin K in the acute setting. Answer A is

incorrect; although blood pressure control is important

for this patient, amlodipine is unlikely to have timely

effects immediately after ICH. Answer C is incorrect

because platelets are minimally effective for reversing

ibuprofen. Answer D is incorrect; rFVIIa is not recom-

mended for reversal of warfarin because of thrombosis

risks.

4

Answer: B

Answer B is correct because nicardipine is recommended

for reducing blood pressure after ICH, and the threshold

for treatment is correct according to the INTERACT-2

and ATACH-2 studies. Answer A is incorrect; although

clevidipine may be considered in this case, the typical

goal blood pressure target after ICH is a SBP 140-150

mm Hg. Answers C and D are incorrect; although labet-

alol and esmolol also reduce blood pressure, the optimal

SBP goal after ICH 140-150 mm Hg.

5

Answer: A

Answer A is correct because nimodipine is the only agent

with an FDA indication for preventing ischemic compli-

cations related to SAH. Answer B is incorrect because

prophylactic Triple-H therapy or variants thereof do not

prevent ischemic complications; rather, hyperperfusion

therapies are used when vasospasm develops. Answer

C is incorrect because in clinical trials, the efficacy of

statins for preventing vasospasm has failed. Answer

D is incorrect because aminocaproic acid may in fact

increase the risk of stroke in patients with SAH.

6

Answer: A

Answer A is correct because induction of hypertension

with a vasopressor such as norepinephrine appears to

improve cerebral perfusion. Titrating the infusion to

MAP values that result in improved neurologic symp-

toms is often necessary. Answer B is incorrect because

data analyses are limited to support transfusing blood

to a high hemoglobin (in fact, blood transfusion appears

to be a risk factor for vasospasm). In addition, fluid

resuscitation to hypervolemic levels is not beneficial.

Answer C is incorrect because when hypervolemia is

compared with euvolemia, neurologic outcomes are no

different, but patients receiving hypervolemia develop

more pulmonary edema. Answer D is incorrect because

milrinone is not first-line therapy for vasospasm.

7

Answer: B

Answer B is correct because the anti-Xa activity concen-

tration is the laboratory value that best correlates with

rivaroxaban activity. Answers A and C are incorrect

because neither INR nor activated partial thrombo-

plastin time is typically affected by rivaroxaban alone.

Answer D is incorrect because the VerifyNow PRU test

measurement is more specific to antiplatelet agents such

as aspirin or clopidogrel.

8

Answer: A

Answer A is correct because the most consistent reversal

effects, although with low-quality evidence, occur with

4F-PCCs. Answer B is incorrect because the appropriate

bolus dose of andexanet would be 400 mg followed by

a 2-hour continuous infusion, given the dose and time

of the last dose. In addition, available data are currently

limited regarding the periprocedural use of andexanet.

Answer C is incorrect because fresh frozen plasma does

not reverse factor Xa inhibitors reliably. Answer D is

incorrect; although factor VII may have some useful-

ness, reversal is incomplete, and factor VII is associated

with an increased risk of thrombosis.

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